KNEC KCPE Past Papers Social Studies and Religious Education 2014
Social Studies and Religious Education
Study the map of Ketu Area provided and answer questions 1-7.
1. The highest point in Ketu area is likely to be found in the
A. South East
B. North West
2. What is the approximate area of the game reserve?
A. 9.0 km².
B. 13.5 km².
C. 16.5 km².
D. 18.O km².
3. The type of climate experienced around Toma village is likely to be
A. cool and wet
B. hot and dry
C. hot and wet
D. cool and dry.
4. A trader at Geza market Wishes to send a message to a wholesaler in Ketu Town. The quickest means of sending the message would be by
5. The distribution of settlement near the chiefs camp can be described as
6. Three of the following economic activities are carried out in Ketu area except:
7. Which one of the following social services is provided in Ketu Town?
8. Which one of the following is a traditional form of education?
A. Use of riddles.
B. Use of pictures.
9. During the prc-colonial period, the Ameru were ruled by a
C. Queen mother
D. Council of elders.
10. Which one of the following groups of communities belong to the plain nilotes?
A. lteso,Acholi, Dinka.
B. Sabaot. Luo, Samburu.
C. Njemps, Karamojong, Maasai.
D. Elmolo, Langi, Turkens.
11. Which one of the following beneﬁts is as a result of interaction among communities in Africa?
A. Development ofselfreliance.
B. Development of Kiswahili.
C. Preservation of culture.
D. Spread of traditional religion.
12. Which one of the following statements is true about the settlement of communities in Eastern Africa during the Pre-colonial period?
A. It led to intermarriage between communities.
B. It led to spread of diseases.
C. lt led to decrease in population.
D. It led to introduction of cash crop farming.
13. A pedestrian has been hit and injured by a cyclist near your school. The immediate action that should be taken is to
A. call a doctor to treat the pedestrian
B. stop the on lookers from crowding at the scene
C. give ﬁrst aid to the pedestrian
D. call the police to arrest the cyclist.
14. Which one of the following instruments is correctly matched with the element of weather it measures?
A. Barometer – temperature.
B. Thermometer – wind speed.
C. Hygrometer – humidity.
D. Anemometer – atmospheric pressure.
15. Which one of the following statements is true about shifting cultivation?
A. It uses hired labour.
B. Farmers use simple tools.
C. Land is divided into several plots.
D. Fertilizers are applied regularly.
16. Which one of the following countries was administered using direct rule by the colonial power?
A. Northern Nigeria.
17. Below are responsibilities of family members.
(i) Giving support and guidance.
(ii) Helping in various duties.
(iii) Sharing family resources.
(iv) Learning positive values.
(v) Providing protection against attacks.
Which one of the following combination consists of responsibilities of the children?
A. (i), (ii), (iv).
B. (i), (iii), (iv).
C. (ii), (iii), (iv).
D. (iii), (iv), (v).
18. The diagram below shows the vegetation zones on a mountain.
The vegetation zone marked K represents
A. bushland and thicket
B. heath and moorland
C. bamboo forest
D. rain forest.
19. Which one of the following ways creates a friendly environment for persons with special needs?
A. Creating awareness among people.
B. Giving responsibilities to persons with special needs in the society.
C. Providing wide passages and ramps.
D. Providing inclusive education.
20. The statements below describe a type of climate.
(i) It experiences high temperatures.
(ii) It receives heavy convectional rainfall.
(iii) Difference between the hottest and coolest month is small.
The climate type described above is
21. The age sex pyramid below represents the population of Germany.
According to the pyramid, the largest population of Germany is made up of people whose age is
A. under 25 years
B. between 35 and 64
C. between 65 and 74
D. above 75 years.
22. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with the area it is mined?
A. Limestone – Magadi.
B. Fluorspar – Athi river.
C. Diatomite – Kariandusi.
D. Soda ash – Kerio valley.
23. Three of the following are factors that promote peace in a society except
C. obeying the law
D. respect of one another.
24. Below are statements on a river project in Africa.
(i) It has led to formation of lake Nasser.
(ii) It is mainly used for irrigation.
(iii) It has helped reduce ﬂoods.
(iv) It has led to less at the mouth of the river.
The river project described above is the
A. Kariba Dam
B. Volta scheme
C. Aswan High Dam
D. River Tana Dams.
25. Which one of the following is most likely to cause conﬂicts in a society?
B. Cultural differences.
C. Differences in opinion.
D. Bad leadership.
26. The following are some of the human rights.
(i) Freedom from discrimination.
(ii) Right to education.
(iii) Right to health care.
(iv) Right to privacy.
The human rights described above are
Study the map of Africa below and use it to answer questions 27, 28, 29 and 30.
27. The town marked [Q] is
28. The crop grown in the area marked R is
29. The language group that originated from the shaded area marked S is
30. Which one of the following is an inﬂuence of the ocean current marked T on the nearby coastal area?
A. It lowers the temperature in the area.
B. It attracts rain in the area.
C. It leads to warm conditions in the area.
D. It raises the humidity in the area.
31. Three of the following are effective Ways of ensuring discipline of pupils in school. Which one is not?
A. Introducing strict school rules.
B. Punishing pupils when they disobey rules.
C. Encouraging pupils to discuss issues with teachers.
D. Calling parents to discuss pupils problems.
32. Quattara depression in Egypt was formed as a result of
A. volcanic action
B. human activities
C. Wind action
D. down warping.
33. Below are statements about a country in Eastern Africa.
(i) It is landlocked
(ii) It lies to the North of the equator.
(iii) It is a source Blue Nile.
The country described above is
34. Which one of the following statements explain the importance of National unity?
A. It allows freedom of movement.
B. It leads to equal distribution of wealth.
C. It makes people obey the law.
D. It creates job opportunities.
35. Which one of the following crops is not grown in Pekera Irrigation scheme?
36. The Berlin conference was held in order to
A. involve African leaders in the partition of Africa
B. avoid conﬂicts among European powers
C. choose leaders for the scramble for Africa
D. discuss the political problems that were facing Africa.
37. Which one of the following groups of industries consists of primary industries?
A. Cement, mining, textile.
B. Fishing, textile, forestry.
C. Mining, cement, textile.
D. Fishing, mining, forestry.
38. Peter has been smoking cigarettes for a long time. Which one of the following is likely to happen to his health?
A. Grow thin.
B. Suffer memory loss.
C. Develop lung cancer.
D. Contract malaria.
39. Which one of the following combinations consists of horticultural crops?
A. Wheat, oranges, rice.
B. Wheat, cabbages, potatoes.
C. Oranges, cabbages, potatoes.
D. Oranges, rice, potatoes.
40. The following are some events that took place during the struggle for independence in Kenya.
(i) Jomo Kenyatta was released.
(ii) A state of emergency was declared
(iii) The ﬁrst African was elected to the Legco.
(iv) Jomo Kenyatta became the president of KANU.
Which one of the following is the correct order in which events took place?
A. (i), (ii), (iv), (ii).
B. (ii), (iii), (i), (iv).
C. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii).
D. (iii), (ii), (i), (iv).
41. Which one of the following factors leads to slow population growth?
A. Cultural practices.
B. Religious beliefs.
C. Higher education.
D. Improved medical care.
42. Who among the following Kenyan leaders was a member of the Kenya African Democratic Union (KADU)?
A. Ronald Ngala.
B. Tom Mboya.
C. Paul Ngei.
D. Oginga Odinga.
43. The best way to attract more tourists to Kenya is by
A. improving accommodation facilities
B. improving transport facilities in the region
C. training more people to serve the tourists
D. lowering charges paid by tourists.
44. Which one of the following groups of countries consist of members of inter- governmental authority on development (IGAD)?
A. Kenya, Uganda, Tanzania.
B. Eritrea, Rwanda, Tanzania.
C. Djibouti, Rwanda. Eritrea.
D. Uganda, Djibouti, Kenya.
45. Below are statements on ﬁsh fanning in Kenya and Japan.
(i) Fish are kept mainly for export.
(ii) Fishfarming is capital intensive.
(iii) The type ofﬁsh kept are mainlyfresh water
(iv) Farmers sell the ﬁsh through co-operatives.
(v) The main species ofﬁsh kept are tilapia.
Which one of the following combination of statement is true of ﬁsh farming in Japan?
A. (i), (iii), (iv).
B. (i), (ii), (iv).
C. (ii), (iv), (v).
D. (iii), (iv), (v).
46. Below are functions of United Nations Agencies.
(i) Providing humanitarian help to mothers and children.
(ii) Fighting diseases and illiteracy.
(iii) Improving water supply.
(iv) Protecting displaced persons.
(v) Ensuring every child enjoys basic rights.
Which among the following combinations consists of functions of the World Food Programme?
A. (i), (ii), (iv).
B. (i), (ii), (iii).
C. (ii), (iii), (iv).
D. (iii), (iv), (v).
47. Three of the following are reasons why people move from rural areas to towns. Which one is not?
A. To get better recreational facilities.
B. To get better medical care.
C. To go to higher education.
D. To get cheaper land for settlement.
48. Three of the following communities were affected by European settler fanning. Which one was not?
49. One of the contributions of Daniel Arap Moi is that he
A. led Kenya to independence
B. was a founder member of KANU
C. promoted one party system in Africa
D. was a peacemaker.
50. Most urban centres in Kenya are overcrowded. The government can reduce this problem by
A. establishing new towns
B. establishing more schools in rural areas
C. building more houses in urban areas
D. encouraging setting up of industries in rural areas.
51. Below are some conditions that favour a type oflivestock fanning.
(i) Cool temperatures.
(ii) Plenty of water
(iii) Large market.
(iv) Good transport network.
The type of livestock farming favoured by the conditions listed above is
A. beef farming
B. dairy farming
C. poultry farming
D. pastoral farming.
52. Which one of the following groups of National parks are found in Uganda? A. Murchison, Ruaha. Serengeti.
B. Serengeti, Bwindi, Nuba.
C. Murchison, Bwindi, Queen Elizabeth.
D. Ruaha, Murchison. Nuba.
53. Mary wants to import medicine from Europe. Which one of the following forms of transport is most suitable?
54. Which one of the following is the main factor that hinders trade amongst Eastern Africa countries?
A. Political instability.
B. Underdeveloped means of transport.
C. Production of similar goods.
D. Limited use of international languages
55.Which one of the following is the main benefit of the Jua Kali industry in Kenya?
A. It creates employment opportunities.
B. It uses unskilled labour.
C. It provides cheap goods.
D. It provides goods for export.
56. Which one of the following is a role of political parties in Kenya?
A. Register voters.
B. Approve national budget.
C. Appoint members of cabinet.
D. Educate people on their rights.
57. Which one of the following members of the cabinet is a civil servant?
A. The president.
B. The secretary to the cabinet.
C. The Attorney General.
D. The Deputy President.
58. Which one of the following groups of people are members of parliament?
59. The highest court in Kenya is
A. High court
B. Court martial
C. Supreme court
D. Court of Appeal.
60. The role of the Kenya Army is to
A. protect Kenya against external attacks
B. arrest law breakers
C. jail criminals
D. charge suspected crime
PART II: RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
61. Adam and Eve hid from God in the garden of Eden because they were
B. afraid of God
C. annoyed with God
62. Abraham showed his faith in God when he
A. made the ark of the covenant
B. took his family to Egypt
C. left his home for an unknown land
D. received visitors in his home.
63. Joseph was able to overcome the temptation from the wife of Potiphar because he
A. believed in God
B. was hardworking
C. was physically strong
D. respected the king.
64. God gave the Israelites the ten commandments in order to
A. make them defeat their enemies
B. allow them to enter the promised land
C. prevent them from returning to Egypt
D. guide them in their daily life.
65. Which one of the following festivals is celebrated by the Israelites to remember their release from Egypt?
66. Naboth refused to give his land to King Ahab because
A. he wanted to give it to his relatives
B. he Wanted to sell it for more money
C. he wanted to remain close to the palace
D. the King wanted it by force.
67. Prophet Nathan was angry with King David because the King
A. had married many wives
B. had killed Uriah
C. had refused to build a house for God
D. was worshipping many gods.
68. Who among the following prophets described the Messiah as the Prince of Peace?
69. Which one of the following statements was said by prophet Jeremiah during his call?
A. I don’t know how to speak I am too young.
B. I am the least important member of my family.
C. I am a poor speaker, slow and hesitant.
D. I am doomed because every word that passes my lips is sinful.
70. “This very day in David’s town your saviour was born-Christ the Lord.” (Luke 2:11) These words were spoken by an angel to
C. the shepherds
D. the wise men.
71. Which one of the following events took place in the life of Jesus when he was eight days old?
72. Which one of the following activities took place during the baptism of Jesus?
A. The curtain was torn into two.
B. There was darkness over the land.
C. People spoke in many languages.
D. The heaven was opened.
73. A lesson that Christians learn from the miraculous catch of ﬁsh is that they should be
74. Which one of the following is the reason why Jesus taught his disciples not to judge others? They will be
A. punished by God
B. judged by God
C. hated by others
D. put to death.
75. The parable of the good samaritan teaches Christians to
A. pray for one another
B. preach the word of God
C. lay hands on the sick
D. help those Who are in need.
76. Who among the following people helped Jesus to carry the cross?
A. Joseph of Arimathea.
C. Simon of Cyrene.
77. Who among the following groups of people were the ﬁrst to know that Jesus had resurrected?
A. Peter and James.
B. Mary Magdalene and Joana.
C. John and Philip.
D. Mary the mother of James and Martha.
78. “These people are not drunk as you suppose, it is only nine o’clock in the morning” (Acts 2:15). Peter spoke these words during the
A. day of Pentecost
B. resurrection of Jesus
C. sermon on the mount
D. last supper.
79. Who among the following people received a call from God on the way to Damascus?
80. lrene visits the orphanage and washes the clothes for the children. The fruit of the Holy Spirit she demonstrates is
81. Which one of the following beliefs about God is common to Christianity and Traditional African Religion?
A. God lives in heaven.
B. God is powerful.
C. God is three in one.
D. God lives in caves.
82. Which one of the following acts of worship is carried out by priests in traditional African Communities?
A. Giving holy communion.
B. Making sacriﬁces.
C. Baptising members.
D. Reciting the creed.
83. Which one of the following is a rite of passage in traditional African Communities?
84. ln traditional African communities children are taught how to respect their elders mainly by
85. Christians take part in development activities in the community because they
A. want to share with others
B. want to become rich
C. like doing it
D. want to be noticed.
86. The desk mate of James has tom his Christian religious Education textbook. As a Christian what should James do?
A. Announce it to the class.
B. Tell him to buy a new book.
C. Forgive his classmate.
D. Report the matter to the class teacher.
87. Which one ofthe following activities best shows how Christians should spend their leisure time?
A. Reading stories.
B. Playing games.
C. Singing songs.
D. Visiting the sick.
88. Margaret a standard six pupil has been given work by her mother. Her friend Carol visits and asks her to escort her to the shop. As a Christian what should Margaret do?
A. Ask Carol to do the work.
B. Do the work as fast as she can.
C. Tell Carol to come another time.
D. Escort Carol to the shop.
89. Henry, a standard eight pupil is being forced by his friends to take alcohol. As a Christian, what should he do?
A. Refuse and change his company.
B. Take it and then repent.
C. Report the matter to the police.
D. Announce it during the assembly.
90. Which one of the following set of actions would Christians take to stop the spread of HIV and AIDS?
(i) Avoid shaking hands with an infected person.
(ii) Ensure that blood is screened before transfusion.
(iii) Being faithful to the marriage partner.
(iv) Avoid sharing ofneedles and razor blades.
(v) Avoid sharing food with an infected person.
A. (i), (ii), (V)
B. (i), (ii), (iii)
C. (ii), (iii), (iv)
D. (ii), (i), (v).
ISLAMIC RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
61. Which one of the following is a verse from Surah Al-kauthar‘?
A. “To you be your religion and to me my religion.”
B. “Therefore turn in prayer to your Lord and sacriﬁce.”
C. “And He sent against them birds in ﬂocks.”
D. “Woe to every slanderer and backbiter.”
62. One of the favours bestowed on the Muslims according to Surah Al Qadr is
A. victory over enemies
B. relief from hardships
C. peace and goodness from Allah
D. protection from hell ﬁre.
63. Ali a standard eight pupil attained position one in the examination, some of his classmates were not happy about his achievement. Which one of the following Surah should he recite?
A. A l-Falaq.
64. Which one of the following boxes contain the characteristics of the right religion according to Suruh Al-Bayyinuh?
65. Surah Al-La/ml) teaches muslims to refrain from
66. According to the Hadith of the prophet (p.b.u.h) a sign of a hypocrite is
A. betraying of tmst
B. having doubts in Allah (s.w.t)
C. performing acts for show off
D. neglecting swalat.
67. Amina, a standard four pupil saw her friend Aisha cheating in examination. The correct course of action for her to take according to the Hadith of the prophet is to
A. keep it to herself
B. tell the class teacher about it
C. tell her classmates about it
D. copy from Aisha.
68. The correct order of the rites of the dead is 0u:
A. Swalat, Ghusl, Kafan, Dafan
B. Ghusl, Swalat, Kafan, Dafan
C. Kafan. Swalat, Ghusl, Dafan
D. Ghusl, Kafan, Swalat, Dafan.
69. An example of Najasar Mutawasit is the
A. vomit of a human being
B. meat of a pig
C. urine of a dog
D. saliva of a pig.
70. It is forbidden for a pilgrim in the state of Ihram to
A. wear sandals
B. cat meat
C. use perfume
D. take a bath.
71. It is compulsory for Zakatulﬁrr to be paid before
A. ldd-ul adh-ha prayers
B. Idd-ul ﬁtr prayers
C. the month of Ramadhan
D. the month of Muharram.
72. Which one ofthe following is not a condition of saum? One must
A. be amuslim
B. have attained puberty
C. be sane
D. be ﬁnancially stable.
73. The main reason why intoxicants are prohibited in Islam is because they
A. lead to other vices
B. are a wastage of money
C. can lead to family break-ups
D. affect health negatively.
74. HIV/AIDS cannot be transmitted from one person to another through sharing of
D. shaving blade.
75. Athman a standard seven pupil was demoted as a class prefect because of making noise in class, and a new prefect was appointed. What is the right cause of action for him to take?
A. Ignore the new prefect.
B. Transfer to another school.
C. Complain to the headteacher.
D. Support the new prefect in his duties.
76. Which one of the following Angels is correctly matched with the duty that he performs?
A. Israﬁl – removing of souls.
B. lzrail – guardian ofparadise.
C. Malik – guardian of hell.
D. Mikaeel – blower of the trumpet.
77. While walking home from school, you come across a hungry cat lying on the roadside, what should you do?
A. take the cat to school and leave it there.
B. take the cat home and feed it.
C. carry the cat and put it under a shade.
D. walk away and leave the cat.
78. Who among the following prophets was the father of prophet Yahya (A.S)?
A. Zakariaya (A.S).
C. Musa (A.S).
D. Suleiman (A.S).
79. An act that enables Muslims earn rewards even after death is
A. performing the ﬁve daily prayers
B. assisting those who are in need
C. reciting the Quran every day
D. raising righteous children who pray for them.
80. Riha is prohibited in Islam because it
A. promotes competition among tradcrs
B. encourages hoarding of goods
C. is a form of exploitation
D. increases the cost of goods.
81. The best way of appreciating the bounties of Allah (s.w.t) is by
A. watching football
B. visiting the sick
C. listening to Qaswida
D. attending milad-un-Nabi.
82. The best way of promoting good behaviour in school is by
A. cleaning the school compound
B. performing prayers together
C. participating in debate competitions
D. participating in football tournaments.
83. The reason why the battle of Uhud was fought is because the
A. Qureish wanted to defend their caravan
B. Muslims wanted to defend their caravan
C. Qureish wanted to take revenge for their previous loss
D. Muslims wanted to take revenge for their previous loss.
84. During the conquest of makka, the Prophet (P.b.u.h) declared that the Makkans would be safe if they took refuge in the house of
D. Abu Sufyan.
85. Which among the following is a term of the Constitution of Madina?
A. No going to war without the prophet’s permission.
B. Muslims will be permitted to visit the Kaaba for three days.
C. Muslims and Qureish could befriend other tribes.
D. No war between Muslims and Makkans for ten years.
86. The reason why Muhammad (P.b.u.h) was taken by Halima Saadiya during his childhood was
A. because his mother had died
B. because she was his relative
C. so that hc could gain noble qualitics
D. so that he could experience life in the countryside.
87. Muslims fast on the day of Ashura to commemorate the day when
A. Prophet Adam was brought to earth
B. Prophet Muhammad went for Isra- wal-miira
C. Prophet Ibrahim was saved from ﬁre
D. Prophet Musa was saved from Fir’aun.
88. The ﬁrst rite performed for a new born baby boy is
89. The Prophet who preferred to go to prison rather than commit Zina is
A. Yusuf (A.S)
B. Yunus (A.S)
C. Issa (A.S)
D. Ibrahim (A.S).
90. The main duty of mankind as a vicegerant of Allah is to
A. reproduce children
B. spread Allah’s religion
C. safeguard A1lah’s creation
D. create wealth on earth.
HINDU RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
61. The following statements describe one of the Panch Mahabhoot:
(i) living beings cannot survive without it
(ii) the earth consists 75% of it
(iii) it is an intergral part of worship
The Panch Mahabhoot described above is
62. Which one of the following attributes of Paramatrna was displayed by Lord Mahavir when he calmed down a mad elephant?
63. At the time of the death ofhis father, Sankracharya consoled his mother by telling her that the soul
A. does not die with the body
B. is not a part of Paramatma
C. travels towards the upper region
D. merges with Paramatma at death.
64. Pandits of Kashmir told Aurangzeb that they would convert to Islam on condition that also embraces Islam.
A. Guru Ramdas
B. Guru Harkishan
C. Guru Gobind Singh
D. Guru Teg Bahadur
65. Who among the following Avatars preached against sacriﬁce of animals in the name of religion?
66. The following are teachings of noble living:
(i) prayers should start with the syllable .OM,
(ii) Boys should perform regular Yajna and pooja
(iii) Family prayers must be held every month
(iv) Drugs and alcohol must be avoided
(v) Married couples must be faithful to each other
. Which combination ofteaching is from satyarth Prakash of Swami Dayanand?
A(i), (iv), (v)
B. (ii), (m), (iv).
C.(i), (ii), (m).
D. (ii), (iv), (V)
67. On the battleﬁeld of Kurukshetra, Lord Krishna explained the duties of a Kshatriya to
68. Which one of the following principles if practised will help a widow Whose husband died of HIV/AlDs and is facing problems in the society?
69. Mrs. Shah is a standard scvcn teacher. Shc often assists the weak pupils in her class after school Without charging them, by doing so shc is practising the principle of
70. Which one of the following is the main beneﬁt of the Sikh principle of Naam Japna?
A. leads to good thoughts that purify the heart.
B. makes one to become fearless.
C. helps one to feel the presence of paramatma.
D. helps one to achieve mental peace.
71. A quality which is acquired by practising the principle of Kshama is
72. Which one ofthe following principles enables a person to detach himself from worldly affairs?
73. All Kenyans live in harmony and show tolerance to people of other faiths, creed and culture, by doing this, they are practising the principle of
74. Which one of the following principles is correctly matched with its meaning? A. Punarjanma – compassion.
B. Purushartha – effort.
C. Pranidaya – prayers.
D. Prarthna – reincarnation.
75. A ritual that is performed by Buddhists when they visit Buddha Gaya is
A. circumbulation of stupa
B. worshipping Lord vishnu’s footprint
C. taking a bath in River Phalgu
D. offering incense at the Mahabodhi temple.
76. The sikh symbol that represents the supreme being is
D. Nishan Sahib.
77. Which one of the following combinations of Sanskar is performed within ﬁfteen days when a baby is born?
A. Chudakarma, Nishkraman.
B. Jatkarma, Namkaran.
C. Nishkraman, Amritshakhna.
D. Upnayan, Dastar Bandhan.
78. Which one ofthe following is not a common factor in the festival of Diwali and Dashera?
A. lighting up ofhomes with deepaks.
B. celebrating victory of good over evil.
C. bursting of ﬁre crackers.
D. holding fun fairs.
79. Which among the following offerings of the utsav ofH0l1′ is taken home as prasad?
80. The Jains perform the Samvatsaree pratikraman on the
A. sixth day
B. seventh day
C. eighth day
D. ninth day.
81. The colour of the cloth that wraps the Nishan Sahib on Vaisakhi day is
82. The following are events in the life of Bhakta Soordas:
(i) he sang bhajans to the tune of Ektara instrument
(ii) he became the chief singer at Shree Nathji’s temple
(iii) he leamt Sanskrit verses by listening to them
(iv) he Was rescued by Lord Krishna when he fell into a well
The correct order in which the events took place is
A. (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) B. (iii), (i), (iv), (ii) (iii).(ii). (iv), (i) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i). 83. “Eating food produced through harming animals cannot generate noble thought.” This is a teaching of
A. Karma yoga
B. Raja yoga
C. Jnana yoga
D. Bhakti yoga.
84. Guru Angad was a favourite shishya of Guru Nanak because he served him with
85. During a Hindu Religious Education lesson, the teacher asked the pupils “Why should you have faith in sanlvani?” Which one of the following answers by the pupils is the most appropriate?
A. Sanrvani carries the message of Paramatma.
B. Santvani is preached in simple language.
C. Sanlvani is read from the holy Grantha.
D. Santvani encourages righteous living.
86. The ﬁrst concern for Hindus when performing their duties should be
A. performing so as to earn prosperity
B. performing so as to earn praise from others
C. performing to the best of their abilities
D. performing so as to make people happy
87. The headteacher ofa primary school in Kibera Slums introduced a lunch feeding programme to feed all the pupils. By doing so. the teacher demonstrated the virtue of
88. According to Hinduism, truthfulness is an important suduchar because it
A. makes one popular
B. promotes mental peace
C. promotes good health
D. builds conﬁdence.
89. In the Hindu calendar, the bright half of the month is known as
B. Vadya paksha
C. Pilru paksha
90. The Gayalri mantra is the worship of
2014 KCPE Social Studies and Religious Education Past Paper-Marking Scheme/Answers
1. A 31. – 61. B 61. B 61. B
2. B 32. C 62. C 62. C 62. C
3. A 33. D 63. A 63. A 63. A
4. C 34. A 64. D 64. D 64. D
5. D 35. A 65. C 65. C 65. C
6. B 36. B 66. A 66. A 66. A
7. A 37. D 67. B 67. B 67. B
8. A 38. C 68. D 68. D 68. D
9. D 39. C 69. A 69. A 69. A
10. C 40. D 70. C 70. C 70. C
11. – 41. C 71. B 71. B 71. B
12. A 42. A 72. D 72. D 72. D
13. C 43. D 73. A 73. A 73. A
14. C 44. D 74. B 74. B 74. B
15. B 45. B 75. D 75. D 75. D
16. D 46. – 76. C 76. C 76. C
17. C 47. D 77. B 77. B 77. B
18. C 48. B 78. A 78. A 78. A
19. C 49. D 79. D 79. D 79. D
20. D 50. D 80. C 80. C 80. C
21. B 51. B 81. B 81. B 81. B
22. C 52. C 82. B 82. B 82. B
23. A 53. D 83. C 83. C 83. A
24. C 54. C 84. D 84. D 84. D
25. D 55. A 85. A 85. A 85. A
26. A 56. D 86. C 86. C 86. C
27. C 57. B 87. D 87. D 87. D
28. A 58. A 88. B 88. B 88. B
29. D 59. C 89. A 89. A 89. A
30. A 60. A 90. C 90. C. 90. C.